UGC NET Paper-II June 2024 (Law) Paper | Cancelled

This will allow you to grasp different concepts and assist you in developing a framework and strategy of preparation. The scores will further provide you with an analysis of your weaknesses and strengths. Attempting the paper will familiarize you with the pattern, structure and difficulty of the paper and help you ace your exams.

The National Testing Agency (NTA) conducted the UGC NET June 2024 Examination in OMR (pen and paper) mode on 18th June 2024, across various cities in two shifts. However, on 19th June 2024, the University Grants Commission (UGC) received indications from cybersecurity authorities that the integrity of the examination might have been compromised.

To maintain transparency and uphold the sanctity of the examination process, the Ministry of Education, Government of India has taken the decision to cancel the UGC NET June 2024

(4) D, E

3. Which of the following section of the Indian Contract Act, 1872 lays down the rights and obligations of the parties to a voidable contract it is rescinded?

(1) Section 63

(2)Section 64

(3) Section 65

(4) Section 66

4. Match List - I with List - II

Choose the correct option:

(1) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I

(2) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II

(3) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II

(4) A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II

5. Arrange the following organs in the sequence in which they were given in the U.N. Charter:

A. Security Council

B. International Court of Justice

C. Trusteeship Council

D. Economic and Social Council

E. Secretariat

Choose the correct option:

(1) A, B, C, D, E

(2) A, B, E, D, C

(3) A, D, C, B, E

(4) A, E, D, C, B

6. Arrange the following statutes in the sequence in which they were, enacted:

A. Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act 2005

B. The Prohibition of Child Marriage Act

C. Maintenance and Welfare of Parents and Senior Citizen Act 2007

D. The Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act.

Choose the correct option:

(1) D, C, B, A

(2) A, B, C, D

(3) B, A, D, C

(4) A, B, D, C

7. Which of the following offence(s) is/are not punishable with death as one of the punishments?

A. Kidnapping for Ransom etc.

B. Sedition

C. Attempt to Murder by a person under sentence of imprisonment for life, if hurt is caused.

D. Murder

E. Waging war against the Government of India

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) A, B

(2) B, C

(3) B Only

(4) B, E

8. "Tort means a civil wrong which is not exclusively a breach of contract or breach of trust". This definition is given by:

1) Salmond

2) Winfield

3) Section 2(m) of the Limitation Act 1963

(4) Section 2(f) of the Limitation Act 1963

9. What is the period of limitation to file a complaint before a Commission under the Consumer Protection Act, 2019?

(1) 30 days

(2) 60 days

(3) 1 year

(4) 2 years

10. The Geographical Indications of Goods and Protection) Act, 1999, provides that

A. Section 2(e) defines 'geographical indication’

B. Section 2(d) defines 'good'.

C. Section 3 provides for Registrar of Geographical Indications.

D. Application for registration can be filed under Section 7.

Choose the most appropriate answer from the given below:

(1) B and D only

(2) A and B only

(3) A and C only

(4) B and C only

11. The Jammu and Kashmir Reorganization Act, 2019 has brought which of the following changes in center and state relationships?

A. Formation of Union territory of Ladakh with Legislature

B. Formation of Union territory of Jammu Legislature

C. Article 239 A of the Constitution which are made applicable to "Union territory Puducherry" shall also apply to the "Union territory of Jammu and Kashmir"

D. The Delimitation of Parliamentary Constituencies Order, 1976 shall stand amended

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

(1) A and B only

(2) B and C only

(3) C and D only

(4) A and C only

12. Arrange the following rights in their chronological order as provided under Article 19(1) of the Constitution:

A. to form association

B. to reside and settle in any part of the territory of India

C. to assemble peaceably and without arms

D. to move freely throughout the territory of India

E. to freedom of speech and expression

Choose the correct answer from the given below:

(1) E, A, C, D, B

(2) E, C, A, B, D

(3) E, A, D, C, B

(4) E, C, A, D, B

13. Match List - I with List - II

Choose the correct option:

1) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV

2) A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-IV

3) A-III, B-I, C-II D-IV

4) A-IV, B-I, C-II D-III

14. Arrange the following in chronological order as per the Sale of Goods Act, 1930:

A. Right of Unpaid seller

B. Transfer by non-owners

C. Conditions and warranties

D. Auction sale

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) A, B, C, D

(2) C, B, A, D

(3) B, C, D, A

(4) C, D, A, B

15. In which of the following case the Supreme Court held that Art. 14 and Art. 21 are important sources of the right to clean environment and right against the adverse effects of climate change?

(1) Association for Democratic Reforms v. Union

(2) M.K. Ranjitsinh v. Union of India

(3) Kuldeep Kumar v. Union of India

(4) Anuradha Bhasin v. Union of India

16. Match List - I with List - II

Choose the correct option:

(1) A-III, B-I, C-II D-IV

(2) A-II, B-I, C-III D-IV

(3) A-II, B-III, C-II D-IV

(4) A-I, B-III, C-II D-IV

17. Arrange the following in chronological order as provided under Section 15 of Hindu Succession Act, 1956:

A. Upon the heirs of the father

B. Upon the sons and daughter and the husband

C. Upon the mother and father

D. Upon the heirs of the husband

E. Upon the heirs of the mother

Choose the correct answer from given below:

1) B, D, A, C, A and E

2) B, D, C, A and E

3) B, C, E, A and D

4) C, D, B, E and A

18. The penalty for failure to comply with orders of Tribunal under Section 26 of the National Green Tribunal Act, is:

(1) Imprisonment up to 3 years or with fine upto Ten Crores or with both

(2) Imprisonment 5 years fine upto Seven Crores or with both

(3) Imprisonment up to 7 years or with fine upto 10 Lakhs or with both

(4) Imprisonment up to 3 years and a fine of 10 Crores

19. Shivagouda v. Chandrakant AIR 1965 SC 212 is a Landmark case on:

(1) Mode of determining existence partnership

(2) Doctrine of Holding out

(3) Option when the minor attains age of majority

(4) Liability of an expelled partner

20. Which of the following case(s) is/are not related to Uniform Civil Code?

Choose from the options below:

1. B, C, E
2. E, A, D
3. D Only
4. A, E, C

21. Who among the following juris is the main exponent of organic theory of personality?

1) Savigny

2) Salmond

3) Gierke

4) H.L.A Hart

22. Which of the following Article of Universal Declaration of Human Rights deal with 'nationality'?

(1) Article 13

(2) Article 14

(3) Article 15

(4) Article 16

23. The phrase "pragmatic federalism" was used by the judiciary in the case of:

(1) State of Rajasthan v. AIR 1977 SC 1361

(2)' S.R. Bommai v. Union of AIR 1994 SC 1918

(3) D.C Wadhwa v. State of Bihar 1987 SCR (1) 798

(4) Raja Ram Pal v. Speaker (2007) 3 SCC 184

24. The case of Council of Civil Service Union v, Minister for the Civil Service (1985) AC 374, Lord Diplock has laid down grounds for revising an administrative decision by way of judicial review:

Choose from the correct option:

(1) A, B and C

(2) B and C

(3) B and D

(4) C and D

25. Arrange the following in sequence as they are given in Article 83 of the statute to International Court of Justice:

Choose the correct option:

(1) A, B, C, D

(2) B, A, C, D

(3) D, C, B, A

(4) B, A, D, C

26. In which of the following case Supreme Court of India summarized law relating to conspiracy?

(1) State of Tamil Nadu through SP CBI/SIT v. Nalini AIR 1999 SC 2640

(2) Hardeep Singh v. State of Bihar AIR 2000 SC 2245

(3) Monika Bedi v. State of Andhra Pradesh AIR 2011 SC(S) 641

(4) Sherimon v. State of Kerela AIR 2012 SC 493

27. Every company having a net worth of Rs.__ or more or net profit of ___ or turnover of ___ or more during any financial year is required to constituted Corporate Social Responsibilty committee of the Board

(1) 1000 Crores, 10 Crores, 500 Crores

(2) 500 Crores, 5 Crores, 1000 Crores

(3) 700 Crores, 10 Crores, 10,000 Crores

(4) 1000 Crores, 5 Crores, 7,000 Crores

28. Match List I with List II

Choose the correct option:

(1) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV

(2) A-I, B-II, C-III. D-IV

(3) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II

(4) A-II, B-I, C-II. D-IV

29. The Supreme Court in which of the following cases declared: “Environment is a difficult word to define. Its normal meaning relates to the surroundings, but obviously that is a concept which is relatable to whatever object it is which is surrounded. Einstein had once observed that the environment is everything that is not me.”

1) A.K Gopalan v. State of Madras

2). T.N. Godavarman Thirumulpad v. of India

3) Olga Telgis v. Bombay Municipal Corporation

4) Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India

30. Which provision of the Patent Act states that discovery of any living or non-living thing substance occurring in nature is not patentable?

(1) Section 3(b)

(2) Section 3 (c)

(3) Section 3(e)

(4) Section 3(h)

31. Which of the following are referred in the preamble of the National Green Tribunal Act, 2010?

A. Stockholm Conference

B. Rio de Janeiro Conference

C. Judicial pronouncement in India

D. Kyoto Protocol

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) A and B

(2) B and C

(3) B and D

(4) A and D

32. Which of the following is not correct in relation to Competition Act, 2002

A. Raghavan Committee laid stress on the enactment of Competition Act,

B. Competition Act. replaced the M.R.T.P Act.

C. Competition Act, 2002 prohibits only Horizontal cartel and not vertical cartel

D. Competition Act, 2002 does not prohibit abuse of dominant position by enterprise.

Choose the correct option:

(1) A and C only

(2) B and C only

(3) B and D only

(4) C and D only

33. Following are the features of Parliamentary form of Government

A. Pre-eminence of the President

B. Bicameral Legislature

C. Collective responsibility

D. Leadership of Prime Minister

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

(1) A, B and C only

(2) A, C and D only

(3) A, B and D only

(4) B, C and D only

34. Arrange the following writs in order as they appear under Article 32 of the Constitution:

A. Habeas Corpus

B. Prohibition

C. Mandamus

D. Quo-warranto

E. Certiorari

Choose the correct answer from the options:

(1) A, B, C, D, E

(2) A, C, B, D, E

(3) A, D, B, E, A

(4) A, C, D, B, E

35. Adultery was decriminalized and Section 497 was declared as unconstitutional as violative of Article 14, 15 and 21 of the Constitution. This was decided in the case of:

(1) Navtej Singh Johar v. Union of India, AIR 2018 SC 4321

(2)' Joseph Shine v. Union of India, AIR 2018 SC 4898

(3) Suresh Kumar Koushal v. Naz Foundation, AIR 2014 SC 563

(4) National Legal Services Authority v. India, AIR 2014 1863

36. Arrange the following jurists in chronological order of their year of birth:

A. Rousseau

B. Hugo Grotius

C. Thomas Hobbes

D. John Locke

E. Montesquieu

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) C, B, A, D, E

(2) B, C, D, E, A

(3) A, D, C, B, E

(4) E, B, C, A, D

37. 'A' with an intention to kill 'B' mixes poison in the sweets and placed the sweets before 'B'. 'B' who was angry on 'A' for some issue threw the sweets from the window. 'Raju' a small boy who was road found the sweets on road and ate the sweets. As a consequence, the boy picking rags on the road found the sweets and ate it. As the consequence, the boy dies of poison. ‘B’ has committed :

(1) Death by Negligence

(2) Culpable Homicide not amounting to murder

(3) Murder

(4) No offence

38. Arrange the following as per the order of sections under the Partnership Act, 1932:

A. Partnership at will 7

B. Property of the firm 6

C. Holding out

D. Dissolution of a firm

E. Effect on Non-Registration of a Partnership

Chose the correct option:

(1) A, E, B, D, C

(2) A, B, C, D, E

(3) A, B, D, C, E

(4) A, B, C, E, D

39. Match List - I with List - II

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

40. Arrange in chronological order the grounds of divorce as provided under section 13 Of the Hindu Marriage Act. 1955:

A. Conversion

B. Desertion

C. Cruelty

D. Unsoundness of mind

E. Voluntary sexual intercourse with any other person than his or her spouse given below:

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) C, A, B, E, D

(2) B, C, A, D, E

(3) E, B, A, C, D

(4) E, C, B, A, D

41. Which of the following conditions are essential for a custom to be valid?

A. Antiquity

B. Continuous enjoyment as right

C. Certainty

D. Inconsistency with the existing custom

E. Conformity with state law

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) A, B and C

(2) A, B, C and E

(3) B, C and E

(4) B, C and D

42. Chronologically arrange the following as per the sections of the Companies Act, 2013:

A. Red-herring Prospectus

B. Deemed Prospectus

C. Abridged Prospectus

D. Shelf Prospectus

E. Prospectus

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) A, B, C, D, E

(2) B, A, C, D, E

(3) E, B, C, D, A

(4) C, E, B, D, A

43. Match List I with List II

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) A-IV, B-II, C- III, D-I

(2) A-II, B-I, C- IV, D-III

(3) A-I, B-II, C- III D-IV

(4) A-III, B-VI, C- II, D-I

44. Which of the following to section related to streedhan has been given retrospective effect?

(1) Section 14 of Hindu Succession Act, 1956

(2) Section 15 of Hindu Succession Act, 1956

(3) Section 19 of Hindu Succession Act, 1956

(4) Section 20 of Hindu Succession Act, 1956

45. In which of the following case the principle of Natural Justice is applicable?

(1) Cases that falls within the provision to Article 311(2)

(2) Cases where administrative action effects a larger number of person

(3) Framing delegated legislation

(4) Refusal of License

46. Which of the following is said to be 'Magna Carta' on human environment?

(1) Universal Declaration of Human Rights

(2) Stockholm Conference

(3) Rio-Declaration on Environment

(4) Johannesburg declaration on Sustainable Development

47. Which of the following statement(s) is/ are correct as per Muslim Law?

1. A child born after the termination of marriage is legitimate if born within two lunar years under Shia law.'

2. A child within six months of the marriage is illegitimate unless father acknowledges it.

3. A child born after the termination of marriage is illegitimate if born within ten lunar months under the Hanafi law.

4. A child born after the termination of marriage legitimate if born within four lunar years under the Shafii law.

48. Which of the following section of Indian Penal Code, 1860 is based on the maxim "Volenti non fit injuria"?

(1) Section 80

(2) Section 81

(3) Section 85

(4) Section 87

49. Which of the following 'Article' is common to all the four Geneva Conventions and called convention within the conventions?

(2) Article 3

(1) Article 2

(3) Article 4

(4) Article 5

50. Which of the following Article Constitution of India empowers Parliament to legislate any matter for implementing obligations and decisions taken at the International Conferences?

(1) Article 252

(2) Article 253

(3) Article 254

(4) Article 255

101. Match List - I with List – II

Choose the correct option:

(1) A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II

(2) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I

(3) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV

(4) A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III

52. Match List - I with List - II

Choose the correct option:

(1) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV

(2) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I

(3) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I

(4) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II

53. Which of the following case is related with the Rohingya refugees?

(1) Mohd. Ahmed Khan v. Shah Bano

(2) Hersman Chaoba Singh v. Union of India

(3) Mohammad Salimullah v. Union of India

(4) NALSA v. Union of India refugees

54. Under the copyright Act, 1957 'Broadcast reproduction right' shall subsist for a period of:

1) Life time

2) 60 years

3) 25 years

4) 40 years

55. Which of the following is correct in relation to World Trade Organization (WTO)?

A. WTO is the successor of GATT.

B. WTO came into existence on 1^st January 1996.

C. Topmost decision making body of WTO is the ministerial conference.

D. WTO has a separate legal personality.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) A, C, D

(2) A, B, C

(3) B, C, D

(4) D, C, B

56. Which of the following situation do amount to failure of constitutional machinery under Article 356 of the Constitution of India?

(1) In general election to the Lok Sabha the ruling party in the state has suffered a massive defeat.

(2) A situation of maladministration in a state where duly constituted ministry enjoys sup of the Assembly.

(3) Serious allegation of corruption against the Ministry.

(4) State has failed to comply or to give effect to any directions given by the union, exercise of its executive the state.

57. Which of the following case is with the "Last Opportunity Rule"?

1) Davies v. Mann

2) Radley v. London & North Western Railways

3) British Columbia Electric Co. v. Loach

4) Ponting v. Noakes

58. Harbouring of persons who have been hired for an unlawful assembly is an offence punishable with:

(1) Imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to 3 years or fine or with both.

(2) Imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to 2 years or fine or with both.

(3) Imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to 1 year or fine or with both.

(4) Imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to 6 months or fine or with both.

59. Arrange the following offences in ascending order in terms of maximum sentence for the offence:

A. Offence Under Section 379 IPC

B. Offence Under Section 403 IPC

C. Offence Under Section 417 IPC

D. Under Section 407 IPC

E. Under Section 426

The correct answer from the options given below:

(1) E, C, D, A, B

(2) B, C, A, D, E

(3) D, A, C, E, B

(4) E, C, B, A, D

60. Chronologically arrange the following in order of their chapter number sequence provided under the Patent Act, 1970:

A. Application for Patent

B. Amendment of Application and specification

C. Publication and examination of Application

D. Thereby Grant of Patents and rights conferred

E. Opposition proceedings to grant of patent.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) A, B, C, E, D

(2) A, B, C, D E

(3) A, C, E, D, B

(4) A, C, E, B, D

61. Which one of the following thinkers gave the concept 'Categorical Imperative'?

(1) Eugen Ehrlich

(2) G.W. Paton

(3) Hens Kelson

(4) Immanual Kant

62. Match List - I with List - II

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

63. Arrange the following in sequence in which they were enacted:

A. The Environment (Protection) Act.

B. Forest (Conservation) Act

C. Wildlife (Protection) Act.

D. Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act.

E. Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act.

Choose the correct option:

(1) C, E, A, B, D

(2) A, B, D, E, C

(3) C, E, B, D, A

(4) E, C, B, D, A

64. Match List - I with List - II

Choose the correct option:

(1) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV

(2) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV

(3) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III

(4) A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II

65. Arrange chronologically from the date of recognition or adoption of Right to Information Law in the given countries:

A. India

B. U.S.A.

C. U.K.

D. Sweden

Choose the correct option:

(1) B, C, D, A

(2) D, B, C, A

(3) D, B, A, C

(4) D, C, B, A

66. Match List - I with List - II

Choose the correct option:

(1) A-IV, B- II, C- I, D- III

(2) A-IV, B- III, C- I, D- II

(3) A-III, B- II, C- I, D- IV

(4) A-III, B- IV, C- I, D- II

67. In Criminal cases, power to grant compensation to the victims of crime can be exercised by:

A. Trial Court

B. Appellate Court

C. Revisional Court

D. Court of Session

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) A and D only

(2) A and B only

(3) A and C only

(4) A, B, C and D

68. Arrange the following cases in the sequence of year in which they were decided:

A. Donoghue v. Stevenson

B. Municipal Corporation of Delhi v. Subhagwanti

C. Chandan Lal v. Union of India

D. Shyam Sunder v. State of Rajasthan

Choose the correct option:

(1) A, D, C, B

(2) A, D, B, C

(3) A, B, D, C

(4) A, C, D, B

69. Match List I with List II

Choose the correct option:

(1) A-II, B- III, C- I, D- IV

(2) A- I, B- II, C- III, D- IV

(3) A- IV, B- III, C- I, D- II

(4) A- IV, B- III, C- II, D- I

70. Which of the following person is not required to take previous approval of the National Biodiversity Authority, to obtain any biological resource occurring in India or knowledge associated there to for research or for commercial utilization or bio-survey and bio-utilization?

(1) Non citizen

(2) Local resident of area

(3) Indian citizen who is non-resident

(4) Body corporate, association or organization

71. Chronologically arrange the following cases as per the date of their decision:

A. Union of India v. Sankal Chand Himatlal Seth

B. S.P. Gupta (I) v. Union of India

C. Delhi Judicial Service Association State of Gujarat

D. Ashwini Kumar Upadhyay v. Union of India

Choose the correct answer from the:

(1) A, B, C and D

(2) A, D, Band C

(3) D, A, C and B

(4) D, A. Band C

72. Section 128 of the Motor Vehicle Act, 1988 requires the payment of the compensation which must be:

(1) Adequate

(2) Just

(3) Fair

(4) Living

73. The authentication to be affected by the use of asymmetric crypto system and hash function is known as:

(1) E-Governance

(2) Public Key

(3) Private Key

(4) Digital Signature

74. A gift of some property with the objective of acquiring it with some religious benefit is known as ____

(1) Aariat

(2) Hiba-bil-iwaz

(3) Sadaqa

(4) Hiba-ba-sharat-ul-iwaz

75. Match List I with List II

Choose the correct option:

(1) A- III, B- II, C- IV, D- I

(2) A-IV, B- III, C- II, D-I

(3) A-IV, B- II, C- I, D-III

(4) A-I, B- IV, C- III, D-II

76. Arrange the following in chronological order of provisions under the Competition Act, 2002:

A. Composition of Commission

B. Combination

C. Abuse of dominant position

D. Anti-competitive agreement

E. Regulations of Combinations

Choose the correct option:

(1) A, E, B, D, C

(2) C, D, B, E, A

(3) D, C, B, E, A

(4) D, B, C, E. A

77. Following provisions are inserted to the Copyright Act, 1957 by amendment on several occasions. Arrange the provisions in chronological order as per the date of amendment:

A. Section 31 B: Compulsory License for benefit of disabled

B. Section 42 A: Power to restrict rights of foreign broadcasting organizations and performers

C. Section 53 A: Resale share right in original copies

D. Section 28 A: Term of copyright in works of Public Undertaking

Choose the correct answer from the options:

(1) A, D, B, C

(2) A, C, B, D

(3) C, D, B, A

(4) D, C, B, A

78. Which of the following pair(s) is/are incorrectly matched:

A. Social Solidarity - Duguit

B. Ground norm – Hens Kelsen

C. Felicific Calculus - Austin

D. Volksgeist - Savigny

E. Social Engineering – Ihering

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

(1) A and C only

(2) C and E only

(3) B and D only

(4) A, C and E only

79. Arrange the following cases in the sequence of year in which they were decided:

A. Pacquette Habana (The Lola)

B. Vishaka v. State of Rajasthan

C. Jolly George v. Bank of Cochin

D. Habeas Corpus Case

Choose the correct answer from the options:

(1) A, B C, D

(2) D, A, C, B

(3) A, D, C, B

(4) A, D, B, C

80. Match List I with List II

Choose the correct option:

(1) A- I, B-II, C-III, D- IV

(2) A- III, B-I, C-IV, D- II

(3) A- I, B-III, C-II, D- IV

(4) A- III, B-I, C-II, D- IV

81. “Administrative Law is the law concerning the powers and procedure of administrative agencies including especially the law governing the judicial review of administrative action”.

Who propounded the above definition to administrative law?

(1) Ivor Jennings

(2) Prof. H.W.R Wade

(3) K.C. Davis

(4) Garner

82. Which of the following Articles of Indian Constitution are related with the Protection of Environment?

A. Article 48

B. Article 48 A

C. Article 21

D. Article 51 A (G)

E. Article 51 A (E)

Choose the correct answer options given below

(1) A, B, E

(2) A, C, D

(3) B, C, D

(4) B, C, E

83. Match List I with List II

Choose the correct option:

(1) A- I, B-II, C-III, D-IV

(2) A- II, B-I, C-IV, D-III

(3) A- I, B-II, C-IV, D-III

(4) A- IV, B-III, C-II, D-I

84. Which of the following provisions of the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993 defines the 'Human Rights'?

(1) Section2 (b)

(2) Section 2 (c)

(3) Section 2(d)

(4) Section 2(e)

85. "Law is an ordinance of reason for the common good made by him who has the care of the community and promulgated." This statement was given by:

(1) St. Augustine

(2) St. Thomas Acquinas

(3) Ulpian

(4) Rousseau

86. Match List I with List II

Choose the correct option:

(1) A- I, B-II, C-III, D-IV

(2) A- II, B-III, C-I, D-IV

(3) A- I, B-IV, C-II, D-III

(4) A- II, B-I, C-III, D-IV

87. The Supreme Court of India declared that "till the law is made by the parliament, the appointment to the post of Chief Election Commissioner and the Election Commissioner shall be done by the President of India on the basis of advice tendered by a committee consisting of the Prime Minister, Leader of opposition in Lok Sabha, where there is no Leader of opposition - the leader of Largest party in the opposition in Lok Sabha having largest numerical strength and the Chief Justice of India."

In which case the Supreme Court has made the above declaration?

(1) Anoop Baranwal v. Union of India

(2) Union of India v. Association for Democratic Reforms

(3) Election Commission of India v. Ashok Kumar

(4) T.N. Seshan, Chief Election Commissioner of India v. Union of India

88. Match List I with List II

Choose the correct option:

(1) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III

(2) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II

(3) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II

(4) A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II

89. 'Tuhr' means:

(1) Period of impurity

(2) Period between three menstruation courses

(3) Period between two menstruation courses

(4) Period during which a Muslim woman is not allowed to meet any one after the death of her husband

90. The doctrine of sovereign equality is provided in ___ of UN charter

(1) Article 2(1)

(2) Article 2 (2)

(3) Article 3 (3)

(4) Article 4 (4)

Read the following passage and then answer the following questions from (91- 95):

Article 48-A of the Constitution provides that the state shall endeavour to protect and improve environment and to safeguard the forests and wildlife of the country. Clause (g) of Article 51A stipulated that it shall be the duty of every citizen of India to protect and improve the natural environment includes forests, lakes, rivers and wildlife, and to have compassion for living creatures. Although these are justifiable provisions of the Constitution, they are indications that the Constitution recognizes the importance of the natural world. The importance of the environment, as indicated by these provisions becomes a right in other parts of the Constitution. Article 21 recognizes the right to life and Personal liberty while Article 14 indicates that all persons shall have equality before law and the equal protection of laws. These Articles are important sources of the right to clean environment and the right against the adverse effects of climate change.

91. The above paragraph reflects the Judgment in case of

(1) M.K. Ranjitsinh v. Union of India

(2) Association for Democratic Reforms v. Union of India

(3) Sita Soren v. Union of India

(4) M.C. Mehta v. Union of India

92. The marginal note of Article 48-A is:

(1) Protection of monuments and places and Object of national importance

(2) Organization of agriculture and animal husbandry

(3) Protection and improvement of climate, forest and wildlife

(4) Protection and improvement of environment and safeguarding of forests and wildlife

93. Which of the following Article of the Constitution says that PART-IV of the Constitution is enforceable?

(1) Article 36

(2) Article 37

(3) Article 38

(4) Article 39

94. Which Constitutional Amendment Act inserted Article 51-A(g) in the Constitution?

(1) 44th Constitutional Amendment Act

(2) 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act

(3) 39th Constitutional Amendment Act

(4) 52nd Constitutional Amendment Act

95. Right to Environment belongs to:

(1) First Generation of Human Rights

(2) Second Generation of Human Rights

(3) Third Generation of Human Rights

(4) Fourth Generation of Human Rights

Read the following passage and then answer the following questions from (96 – 100)

For any religious mutt, sect, body, sub-sect or any soon thereof to be designated as religious denomination, it must be a collection of individuals having a collective common faith, a common organization which adheres to the said common faith, and last but not the least, the said collection of individuals must be labelled, branded and identified by a name. The most important condition for a religious denomination, i.e., the collection of individuals ought to have a system of beliefs or doctrines which they regard as conducive to their spiritual well-being. For a religious denomination, there must be new methodology provided for a religion. Mere observance of certain practices, even though from a long time, does not make it a distinct religion on that account.

96. Which provision of Kerala Hindu Place of Public Worship (Authorization of Entry) Rules 1965 was declared as ultra vires?

(1) Rule 3(a)

(2) Rule 3(b)

(3) Rule 4 (a)

(4) Rule 4(b)

97. Which among the following case is not related to right to religion?

(1) Rev Stainislaus v. state of M.P. AIR 1977 SC 908

(2) Bijoe Emmanual v. State of Kerala (1984) J.SCC 615

(3) Mohd. Hanif Quareshi v. State of Bihar AIR 1958 SC 731

(4) Rameshwar Prasad v. Union of India (2006) 2 SCCI

98. This paragraph is a part of the case where in dissenting judgment was delivered by:

(1) Indu Malhotra

(2) Dipak Mishra

(3) R. F Narima

(4) A.M. Khanwilkar

99. Which of the following is not the condition for recognition of 'Religious denomination’:

(1) Collection of individual having common faith

(2) Common organization

(3) Collection of individuals must not have a common name

(4) System of belief

100. The passage is a part of decision of the Supreme Court in the case of:

(1) E.A. Aboobacker v. State of Kerala (2018) 12 263

(2) Joseph v. State of Kerala (2023) 12 SCR 505

(3) Indian Young Lawyer Association v. State of Kerala (2018) 9 SCR 561

(4) Reji Thomas v. State of Kerala (2018) 6 SCR805

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